MCVE's speak louder than words:
// int bar();
template <bool B> class Foo {
friend int ::bar() { return 123; }
};
int main()
{
Foo<false> f1;
Foo<true> f2;
}
with GCC 6 and --std=c++14
, this gives me:
a.cpp: In instantiation of ‘class Foo<true>’:
a.cpp:9:12: required from here
a.cpp:3:13: error: redefinition of ‘int bar()’
friend int ::bar() { return 123; }
^~
a.cpp:3:13: note: ‘int bar()’ previously defined here
Now, I'm not sure what the standard says; but I know that the compiler knows that the friend is not templated on B
, nor does its definition use B
. So why can't it apply the "oh, all inline copies of the same definition of a function are the same" rule?
A non-template class can have template member functions, if required. Notice the syntax. Unlike a member function for a template class, a template member function is just like a free template function but scoped to its containing class.
Yes, they are inline . Most implementations can't do separate instantiation of template functions, so you have to include them in every place you intend to use them.
To instantiate a template function explicitly, follow the template keyword by a declaration (not definition) for the function, with the function identifier followed by the template arguments. template float twice<float>(float original); Template arguments may be omitted when the compiler can infer them.
Deriving from a non-template base classIt is quite possible to have a template class inherit from a 'normal' class. This mechanism is recommended if your template class has a lot of non-template attributes and operations. Instead of putting them in the template class, put them into a non-template base class.
Now, I'm not sure what the standard says;
This case has in fact been clarified with an example in the upcoming C++17
[temp.inst]/2 The implicit instantiation of a class template specialization ... [snip] ... for the purpose of determining whether an instantiated redeclaration of a member is valid according to 3.2 [basic.def.odr] and 9.2 [class.mem], a declaration that corresponds to a definition in the template is considered to be a definition. [ Example:
... [snip (another example)] ...
template<typename T> struct Friendly { template<typename U> friend int f(U) { return sizeof(T); } }; Friendly<char> fc; Friendly<float> ff; // ill-formed: produces second definition of f(U)
— end example ]
Admittedly as you point out, the example of the standard does produce a different definition for each instantiation, but that is not necessary for the example to be ill-formed according to that rule.
So why can't it apply the "oh, all inline copies of the same definition of a function are the same" rule?
This question seems to apply to the a much simpler situation as well:
inline void foo(){}
inline void foo(){}
Surely a compiler can see that the definitions are identical, just as much as a compiler can see that the definition of your ::bar
depends not on the template argument of Foo
.
Yet, odr says that the re-definition is ill-formed. This is true for definitions outside a class template, as well as definitions that are caused by instantiation of a class template.
Perhaps odr could be relaxed for the case that you demonstrate, but that would require complicating the standard with a special case rule, and complicate the compilers that then would have to analyse whether template arguments are used within the definition, so such relaxation certainly isn't without compromise.
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