Logo Questions Linux Laravel Mysql Ubuntu Git Menu
 

has_one and has_many in same model. How does rails track them?

I a little confused about how this work even if it works properly. I have a model that has two association to the same other model.

Company has an owner and company has many employees of the class users.

here is my company model:

class Company < ActiveRecord::Base
  validates_presence_of :name

  has_many :employee, :class_name => 'User'
  has_one :owner, :class_name => 'User'
  accepts_nested_attributes_for :owner, :allow_destroy => true
end

here is my user model:

class User < ActiveRecord::Base
  include Clearance::User
  attr_accessible :lastname, :firstname #other attr are whitelisted in clearance gem
  validates_presence_of :lastname, :firstname
  belongs_to :company
end

Now assuming I have 3 employee of this company including the owner. When I first create the company I set the owner to the employee with id 1 and the two others (2,3) are added to the employee list by setting their company_id (user.company=company). All three have their company_id set to the company id which we can assume is 1

when I ask for company.owner, I get the right user and when I do company.employee, I get all three.

If I change the owner to user 2, it removes user 1 from the employees automatically by setting it's company_id to nil. This is fine and if I add him back as a simple employee all is still good.

How the heck does rails know which is which? What I mean is how does it know that an employee is owner and not just an employee? Nothing in the schema defines this.

I have a feeling I should reverse the owner association and make company belong_to a user.

like image 865
nkassis Avatar asked Sep 26 '09 07:09

nkassis


People also ask

What is the difference between Has_one and Belongs_to in Ruby on Rails?

The difference between belongs_to and has_one is a semantic one. The model that declares belongs_to includes a column containing the foreign key of the other. The model that declares has_one has its foreign key referenced.

How does dependent destroy work?

dependent: :destroy Rails, when attempting to destroy an instance of the Parent, will also iteratively go through each child of the parent calling destroy on the child. The benefit of this is that any callbacks and validation on those children are given their day in the sun.

What does Inverse_of do in Rails?

The :inverse_of option basically gives us two-way memory bindings when one of the associations is a :belongs_to . A memory optimization isn't the only thing that :inverse_of gets you.


1 Answers

As you have it now, there's nothing to distinguish owners from employees. Which means you're going to run into problems once you start removing people or try to change ownership.

As François points out, you're just lucking out in that the owner is the user that belongs to company with the lowest ID.

To fix the problem I would have my models relate in the following maner.

class Company < ActiveRecord::Base
  belongs_to :owner, :class_name => "user"
  has_many :employees, :class_name => "user"
  validates_presence_of :name
  accepts_nested_attributes_for :owner, :allow_destroy => true
end

class User < ActiveRecord::Base
  include Clearance::User
  attr_accessible :lastname, :firstname #other attr are whitelisted in clearance gem
  validates_presence_of :lastname, :firstname
  belongs_to :company
  has_one :company, :foreign_key => :owner_id
end

You'll have to add another column called owner_id to the Companies table, but this more clearly defines your relationships. And will avoid any troubles associated with changing the owner. Take note that there might be a cyclical dependency if you go this route and have your database set so that both users.company_id and companies.owner_id cannot be null.

I'm not quite sure how well accepts_nested_attributes_for will play with a belongs_to relationship.

like image 108
EmFi Avatar answered Oct 17 '22 17:10

EmFi