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Are (bool)(i & 1) and i % 2 == 1 same?

Tags:

c++

c

cross-platform

Are (bool)(i & 1) and i % 2 == 1 always same where i is int?

Note: saying always I mean for all platforms (even when a byte is 16 bit) and for all standards of C and C++.

Edit:

For all standards of C and C++ where bool exist.

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Mihran Hovsepyan Avatar asked Jun 22 '11 10:06

Mihran Hovsepyan

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1 Answers

No.

1s' complement representation of int, the representation of -1 is 1 ... 10, so they differ.

Anyway, i % 2 can be negative for negative i (indeed it's required to be in C99 when it's not 0), and hence not equal to 1 for negative odd numbers.

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Steve Jessop Avatar answered Sep 17 '22 21:09

Steve Jessop
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