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What is the justification for this Nullable<T> behavior with implicit conversion operators

I encountered some interesting behavior in the interaction between Nullable and implicit conversions. I found that providing an implicit conversion for a reference type from a value type it permits the Nullable type to be passed to a function requiring the reference type when I instead expect a compilation error. The below code demonstrates this:

static void Main(string[] args) {     PrintCatAge(new Cat(13));     PrintCatAge(12);     int? cat = null;     PrintCatAge(cat); }  private static void PrintCatAge(Cat cat) {     if (cat == null)         System.Console.WriteLine("What cat?");     else         System.Console.WriteLine("The cat's age is {0} years", cat.Age); }  class Cat {     public int Age { get; set; }     public Cat(int age)     {         Age = age;     }      public static implicit operator Cat(int i)     {         System.Console.WriteLine("Implicit conversion from " + i);         return new Cat(i);     } } 

Output:

The cat's age is 13 years Implicit conversion from 12 The cat's age is 12 years What cat? 

If the conversion code is removed from Cat then you get the expected errors:

Error 3 The best overloaded method match for 'ConsoleApplication2.Program.PrintCatAge(ConsoleApplication2.Program.Cat)' has some invalid arguments

Error 4 Argument 1: cannot convert from 'int?' to 'ConsoleApplication2.Program.Cat

If you open the executable with ILSpy the code that was generated is as follows

int? num = null; Program.PrintCatAge(num.HasValue ? num.GetValueOrDefault() : null); 

In a similar experiment I removed the conversion and added an overload to PrintCatAge that takes an int (not nullable) to see if the compiler would perform a similar operation, but it does not.

I understand what is happening, but I don't understand the justification for it. This behavior is unexpected to me and seems odd. I did not have any success finding any reference to this behavior on MSDN in the documentation for conversions or Nullable<T>.

The question I pose then is, is this intentional and is there a explanation why this is happening?

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Thomas Avatar asked Apr 16 '12 23:04

Thomas


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What is the implicit conversion?

An implicit conversion sequence is the sequence of conversions required to convert an argument in a function call to the type of the corresponding parameter in a function declaration. The compiler tries to determine an implicit conversion sequence for each argument.

How do you use implicit conversions?

An implicit conversion from type S to type T is defined by an implicit value which has function type S => T , or by an implicit method convertible to a value of that type. Implicit conversions are applied in two situations: If an expression e is of type S , and S does not conform to the expression's expected type T .

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1 Answers

I said earlier that (1) this is a compiler bug and (2) it is a new one. The first statement was accurate; the second was me getting confused in my haste to get to the bus on time. (The bug I was thinking of that is new to me is a much more complicated bug involving lifted conversions and lifted increment operators.)

This is a known compiler bug of long standing. Jon Skeet first brought it to my attention some time ago and I believe there's a StackOverflow question about it somewhere; I do not recall where offhand. Perhaps Jon does.

So, the bug. Let's define a "lifted" operator. If an operator converts from a non-nullable value type S to a non-nullable value type T then there is also a "lifted" operator that converts from S? to T?, such that a null S? converts to a null T? and a non-null S? converts to T? by unwrapping S? to S, converting S to T, and wrapping T to T?.

The specification says that (1) the only situation in which there is a lifted operator is when S and T are both non-nullable value types, and (2) that the lifted and non-lifted conversion operators are both considered as to whether they are applicable candidates for the conversion and if both applicable, then the source and target types of the applicable conversions, lifted or unlifted, are used to determine the best source type, best target type, and ultimately, best conversion of all the applicable conversions.

Unfortunately, the implementation thoroughly violates all of these rules, and does so in a way that we cannot change without breaking many existing programs.

First off, we violate the rule about the existence of lifted operators. A lifted operator is considered by the implementation to exist if S and T are both non-nullable value types, or if S is a non-nullable value type and T is any type to which a null could be assigned: reference type, nullable value type, or pointer type. In all those cases we produce a lifted operator.

In your particular case, we lift to nullable by saying that we convert a nullable type to the reference type Cat by checking for null. If the source is not null then we convert normally; if it is, then we produce a null Cat.

Second, we violate thoroughly the rule about how to determine the best source and target types of applicable candidates when one of those candidates is a lifted operator, and we also violate the rules about determining which is the best operator.

In short, it is a big mess that cannot be fixed without breaking real customers, and so we will likely enshrine the behaviour in Roslyn. I will consider documenting the exact behaviour of the compiler in my blog at some point, but I would not hold my breath while waiting for that day if I were you.

And of course, many apologies for the errors.

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Eric Lippert Avatar answered Oct 11 '22 21:10

Eric Lippert