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Is (n & m) <= m always true?

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Given n and m unsigned integral types, will the expression

(n & m) <= m 

always be true ?

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Vincent Avatar asked Feb 02 '14 11:02

Vincent


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1 Answers

Yes, it is true.

It should be readily apparent that a necessary condition for y > x is that at least one bit position is set to 1 in y but 0 in x. As & cannot set a bit to 1 if the corresponding operand bits were not already 1, the result cannot be larger than the operands.

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Oliver Charlesworth Avatar answered Oct 11 '22 01:10

Oliver Charlesworth