I came across a problem from a recent competition. I was unable to figure out a solution, and no editorial for the question is yet available.
Question Link
I am quoting the problem statement here also in case the link doesn't work.
Find the number of integers n which are greater than or equal to A and less than or equal to B (A<= n <=B) and the decimal representation of 2^n ends in n.
Ex: 2^36 = 68719476736 which ends in “36”.
INPUT
The first line contains an integer T i.e. number of test cases. T lines follow, each containing two integers A and B.
Constraints
1 <= T <= 10^5
A<=B
A,B <= 10^150
OUTPUT
Print T lines each containing the answer to the corresponding testcase.
Sample Input
2
36 36
100 500
Sample Output
1
0
As often happens on programming competitions I have come up with an heuristics I have not proven, but seems plausible. I have written a short program to find the numbers up to 1000000 and they are:
36
736
8736
48736
948736
Thus my theory is the following - each consecutive number is suffixed with the previous one and only adds one digit. Hope this will set you on the right track for the problem. Note that if my assumption is right than you only need to find 150 numbers and finding each consecutive number requires checking 9 digits that may be added.
A general advice for similar problems - always try to find the first few numbers and think of some relation.
Also often it happens on a competition that you come up with a theory like the one I propose above, but have no time to prove it. You can't afford the time to prove it. Simply hope you are right and code.
EDIT: I believe I was able to prove my conjecture above(in fact I have missed some numbers -see end of the post). First let me point out that as v3ga states in a comment the algorithm above works up until 75353432948736
as no digit can be prepended to make the new number "interesting" as per the definition you give. However I completely missed another option - you may prepend some number of 0 and then add a non-zero digit.
I will now proof a lemma:
Lemma: if a1a2...an is an interesting number and n is more than 3, then a2...an also is interesting.
Proof: 2a1a2...an = 2a1*10n - 1*2a2a2...an
Now I will prove that 2a1*10n - 1*2a2a2...an is comparable to 2a2a2...an modulo 10n-1.
To do that lets prove that 2a1*10n - 1*2a2a2...an - 2a2a2...an is divisible by 10n-1.
2a1*10n - 1*2a2a2...an - 2a2a2...an = 2a2a2...an * (2a1*10n - 1 - 1) a2a2...an is more than n-1 for the values we consider.
Thus all that's left to prove to have 10n-1 dividing the difference is that 5n-1 divides 2a1*10n - 1 - 1.
For this I will use Euler's theorem:
2phi(5n-1) = 1 (modulo 5n-1).
Now phi(5n-1) = 4*(5n-2) and for n >= 3 4*(5n-2) will divide a1*10n - 1(actually even solely 10n - 1).
Thus 2a1*10n - 1 gives remainder 1 modulo 5n-1 and so 5n-1 divides 2a1*10n - 1 - 1.
Consequently 10n-1 divides 2a2a2...an * (2a1*10n - 1 - 1) and so the last n - 1 digits of 2a1a2a2...an and 2a2a3a4...an are the same.
Now as a1a2a2...an is interesting the last n digits of 2a1a2a2...an are a1a2a2...an and so the last n-1 digits of 2a2a3a4...an are a2a3a4...an and consequently a2a3a4...an is also interesting. QED.
Use this lemma and you will be able to solve the problem. Please note that you may also prepend some zeros and then add a non-zero number.
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