What is the correct way to interpret this complicated javascript expression?
some_condition ? a = b : c = d = e;
Following operator precedence rules, I would expect it to be:
(some_condition ? a = b : c) = d = e;
But it seems that the grouping is actually:
EDIT: (The original grouping was unclear. See below for update)
EDIT: some_condition ? a = b : (c = d = e);
Why is this so? (And no I did not write that code)
EDIT: This seems to suggest that in Javascript to say ?:
have higher precedence than =
is not entirely true. As a further example:
x = y ? a = b : c = d = e;
If ?:
have higher precedence than =
(as in C) then the grouping would be
x = ((y ? a = b : c) = (d = e));
but rather (from the answers) what we have is
x = (y ? a = b : (c = d = e));
The relative precedence of ?:
and =
seems to depend on where they appear in the expression
If you look at javascript precedence operators, assignments
have a lower precedence than conditional operator
but, according to ecmascript specs, Par. 11.12
11.12 Conditional Operator ( ? : )
Syntax
ConditionalExpression : LogicalORExpression
LogicalORExpression ? AssignmentExpression : AssignmentExpression
AssignmentExpression is evaluated as follows:
1. Let lref be the result of evaluating LogicalORExpression.
2. If ToBoolean(GetValue(lref)) is true, then
a. Let trueRef be the result of evaluating the first AssignmentExpression.
b. Return GetValue(trueRef).
...
So the conditional operator evaluates that code grouping every assignment expression and it works as everybody explained.
Maybe I could be wrong here, but I think that operators precedence are related instead to how js parse an expression like
a = (b < c)? b : c;
(and not when contained in the AssignmentExpressions) where in this scenario the assignment should have a lower precedence, so Javascript evaluates the whole statement as
a = ((b < c)? b : c);
Thats an abbreviated if else
statement
the long form would be
if(some condition)
{
a = b;
}
else
{
c = d = e;
}
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